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THE
TRINITY- FACT OR FICTION?
For
nearly 2,000 years the christian church has taught the doctrine of
the Trinity. Astoundingly, nowhere in Scripture do we find the word
“Trinity”, and even the concept
of three beings in
one
heavenly majesty is just as difficult to come by in the Scriptures.
Jay
P. Green’s Classic
Bible Dictionary says
about the word trinity, "This is not itself a Biblical term, but
was a term coined by Tertullian to refer to this whole concept under
one word" (p. 483). The Cyclopedia
of
Biblical, Theological, and Ecclesiastical Literature
says forthrightly, "Respecting the manner in which the Father,
the Son, and the Holy Spirit make one G-d, the Scripture teaches
nothing, since the subject is of such a nature as not to admit of its
being explained to us" ("Trinity," p. 553).
The
doctrine of the Trinity is often defined in the following terms: "The
holy trinity is one supreme being existing in three persons, all
equal in rank and in eternity and having the same substance, all
united in one G-dhead." When pressed to explain it from
Scripture, some will compare the trinity to an egg and clergymen
usually respond with something like, "It is a great mystery, and
no one can really understand it." This leads us to ask, would
Yahweh give man a key teaching that could not be understood? How
could He teach us a concept that is absent in the Scriptures?
Regardless
of these facts, the belief in a co-equal and co-eternal Father, Son,
and Set-apart Spirit is so pervasive and ingrained that few any
longer question its origins and legitimacy. It has even become a test
belief to determine whether one is of the belief system called
“Christianity”.
An
exhaustive review of Scripture and history reveals the simple fact
that the Trinity teaching was unknown to the early New Covenant
assembly. That the doctrine of the Trinity is a "revealed
doctrine" foreign to the Scriptures is supported by many
authorities, including the International
Standard
Bible Encyclopedia. Under
the article Trinity we read, "The term ‘Trinity’ is
not a
biblical term…In point of fact, the doctrine of the Trinity
is a
purely revealed doctrine…As the doctrine of the Trinity is
indiscoverable by reason, so it is incapable of proof from reason"
(vol. 5, p. 3012).
This
authority is not alone in its insight. Another explains that the
whole notion of a Trinity emerged from heated disagreement and
dispute: "The doctrine developed gradually over several
centuries and through many controversies… The council of
Nicaea
in
325 stated the crucial formula for that doctrine in its confession
that the ‘Son is of the same substance…as the
Father,’ even
though it said very little about the Holy Spirit…By the end
of
the
4th century…the doctrine of the Trinity took substantially
the
form
it has maintained ever since" (Encyclopaedia
Britannica,
Trinity).
Both
secular historians and Bible scholars readily admit that the doctrine
of the Trinity was not official church teaching until the council of
Nicaea in the year 325 of our common era. The New
Catholic Encyclopedia,
1967, Vol. 14, concedes, "The formulation ‘one G-d in three
Persons’ was not solidly established, certainly not fully
assimilated into Christian life and its profession of faith, prior to
the end of the 4th century… Among the Apostolic Fathers,
there
had
been nothing even remotely approaching such a mentality or
perspective."
What
an amazing statement! The early Apostolic Fathers had no concept of a
triune relationship among the Father, Son, and Set-apart Spirit. It
is also freely admitted that the doctrine was not established until
400 years after the Saviour’s resurrection. This fact can
only
cause us to ask, if this were a key truth known by Yahushua the
Messiah and the apostles, why is there no evidence of it in their
teachings or writings? And if the doctrine of the Trinity is not of
Scriptural origin, where did it come from?
PAGAN
TRINITIES ARE MANY
Surprisingly,
the idea of a triune deity is very ancient, and can be traced back to
ancient Babylon. "Will anyone after this say that the Roman
Catholic Church must still be called Christian, because it holds the
doctrine of the Trinity? So did the pagan Babylonians, so did the
Egyptians, so do the Hindoos at this hour, in the very sense in which
Rome does" (The
Two Babylons,
by Alexander Hislop).
Hislop’s
statements are supported in the Encyclopedia
of
Religion and Ethics,
"Although the notion of a divine triad or Trinity is
characteristic of the Christian religion, it is by no means peculiar
to it. In Indian religion we meet with the trinitarian group of
Brahma, Shiva, and Vishnu; and in Egyptian religion with the
trinitarian group of Osiris, Isis, and Horus, constituting a divine
family, like the Father, Mother and Son in mediaeval Christian
pictures" (Trinity, p. 458).
A
question few ever stop to ask is, why is the Trinity a belief held
firmly by most of Christendom, while it is completely lacking in the
Scripture's teachings? The historian Will Durant offers this
startling explanation, "Christianity did not destroy paganism;
it adopted it…The Greek language, having reigned for
centuries
over
philosophy, became the vehicle of Christian literature and ritual;
The Greek mysteries passed down into the impressive mystery of the
Mass. Other pagan cultures contributed to the syncretist result. From
Egypt came the ideas of a divine Trinity" (The
Story of Civilization,
Vol. III).
This
blending in of paganism, which was so characteristic of the early
church, changed Christianity forever. Like the development of the
Trinity, many practices and beliefs of today’s church
developed
over time, clearly not taught as precepts in the Scriptures.
A
SON UNEQUAL TO HIS FATHER
What
does the Bible actually say about the relationship between the
Father, Son, and the Set-apart Spirit? Does any
evidence for the Trinity exist in the New Covenant? The answer is a
resolute no. The first problem found in the Trinity doctrine is that
the New Covenant says expressly that the Father is greater than the
Son. Yahushua called Yahweh His "Father" for the simple
reason that Yahweh was superior to and preceded the Son in
existence - as do all fathers.
The
doctrine of the Trinity says that the Son is both co-equal to and
co-eternal with the Father, while the Scriptures maintain quite the
opposite.
Yahushua
the Messiah Himself affirmed that he was not co-equal with the
Father, but was in submission and subjection to the Father:
John
14:28 “You heard that
I said to you, ‘I am going away
and I
am coming to you.’ If you did love Me, you would have
rejoiced
that
I said, ‘I am going to the Father,’ for
My Father is
greater than I.”
Yahushua
again confirms his submission to his Father:
John
10:29 “My Father,
which gave them to me, is greater than all;
and no man
is able to snatch them out of my Father's hand.”
In
His own words Yahushua confirms that the Father is superior to
everyone, including the Son Himself.
The
Apostle Paul confirms Yahushua’s subordinate relationship to
the
Father:
1 Corinthians
11:3 And I wish you to know that
the head of every man
is the Messiah, and the head of woman is the man, and the
head
of Messiah is Elohim.”
See
also Mark
13:32, Matthew 20:20-23,
John
5:19,
and John
10:29.
THE
SON IS NOT CO-ETERNAL WITH THE FATHER
The
above passages pose a problem - but not the only problem - with the
Trinity. The definition of the Trinity states that the Father, Son,
and Set-apart Spirit are co-eternal. This assertion is another
misunderstanding, developed from the Council of Nicaea in 325 CE.
John
of Patmos wrote the Book of Revelation under the direction of
Yahushua the Messiah. Yahushua inspired John to write that Yahushua
the Messiah was the first ever creation of the Father:
Revelation
3:14
“And to the messenger of the assembly in Laodikeia write,
‘The
Amĕn, the Trustworthy and True Witness, the
Beginning of the creation of Elohim...”
If
Yahushua was created by His Father, how then can the Son and Father
be co-eternal? Knowing that one existed prior to the other, reason
alone would conclude that a co-eternal relationship between the Son
and Father is illogical. Proverbs tells us:
Proverbs
8:22-25 “YHWH
possessed me, The beginning
of His way, As the first of
His works of
old. 23
“I
was set up ages ago, at the first, Before the earth
ever was. 24
“When there were no depths I was brought
forth, When
there were no springs heavy with water. 25
“Before mountains were
sunk, Before the hills, I was brought
forth...
Scripture
clearly states that only Yahweh, the Heavenly Father, has immortality
and is the only one who ever possessed immortality within Himself:
1Timothy
6:16 “...who alone has
immortality, dwelling in unapproachable light,
whom no one has seen or is able to see, to whom be respect and
everlasting might. Amĕn.”
This
statement can only apply to Yahweh, the Father. This is further proof
that a co-eternal relationship between the Son and Father cannot be
scripturally established.
THE
MEANING OF ELOHIM
Much
confusion over the Trinity has developed from the Hebrew word
"elohim." The term elohim is in the oldest Hebrew Old
Covenant manuscripts and is therefore a legitimate title for the
Heavenly Majesty.
There
is a total lack of evidence in the Bible to say that the term
"elohim" represents the Father, Son, and Set-apart Spirit,
however. The word is a collective noun, masculine in gender, denoting
more than one mighty one — yet indicating no particular or
precise
number. One concordance gives the meaning of elohim this way:
"Elohim, G-d (plural of majesty; plural in form but singular in
meaning, with a focus on great power); g-ds (true grammatical
plural); and person characterized by greatness of power, mighty one,
great one, judge" (Zondervan
NIV Exhaustive
Concordance).
Proof
for the existence of more than one mighty one in the Heavenly Host
can be found at the beginning:
Genesis
1:1. "In the beginning Elohim [mighty ones]
created the
heaven and the earth."
Many
suppose that this is evidence for a triune deity. However, the term
elohim simply means more than one, like family, school, or board.
Each of these words describes a collective relationship, but does not
designate a specific number. Although technically plural, it is
sometimes used for the Father alone.
Also,
the term elohim is not limited in reference to supreme or
supernatural beings. Moses was compared to an elohim in Exodus
4:16.
The
term "elohim" is even applied to pagan deities:
Deu
32:12 "YHWH alone
led him, And there was no strange elohim with him."
The
title "elohim" is used in many different ways, and for that
reason it is impossible to conclude a triune relationship in the
Heavenly Majesty from this word.
THE
POWER OF YAHWEH
The
doctrine of the Trinity states that the Set-apart Spirit is a
separate being, and part of the "Holy Trinity." The phrase
"Holy Spirit" is from the Hebrew Ruach
ha qodesh.
The word spirit is derived from the Hebrew word ruach,
which occurs 389 times in the Old Covenant. That includes 232 times
when it is used for "spirit," 92 times for "wind,"
and 27 times as "breath" in the King James Version.
Note
the definition of the word ruach:
"The basic meaning of ruach is both ‘wind’ or
‘breath,’
but neither is understood as essence; rather it is the power
encountered in the breath and the wind, whose whence and whither
remains mysterious…2. ruach as a designation for the wind is
necessarily something found in motion with the power to set other
things in motion…The divine designation also apparently has
an
intensifying function in a few passages: ruach elohim (Gen
1:2)
and ruach yhwh (Isa 59:19)"
(Theological
Lexicon of the Old Testament,
"Ruach").
This
lexicon also states that ruach
implies a power that is within the breath and wind, which is
connected to the Name YHWH or Yahweh. The Set-apart Spirit is the
power emanating from Yahweh, the Heavenly Father. It is
Yahweh’s
power that puts all things into motion. It is Yahweh’s power
through His Ruach
ha qodesh that breathes life
into His creation and makes living things live.
The
Greek word for Spirit is pneuma,
which shares a mirror definition with the word ruach.
"Pneuma; to breathe, blow, primarily denotes the wind. Breath;
the spirit which, like the wind, is invisible, immaterial, and
powerful" (The
Complete Word Study New
Testament,
"Pneuma").
It
can be further demonstrated through Scriptures that the Set-apart
Spirit is not a separate being, but an inanimate power that proceeds
from the Father. In Isaiah 32:15,
44:3, and Acts 2:17
the Set-apart Spirit is described as being poured. How can a being be
poured into another? Titus 3:5-6
and Acts
2:33 testify
that the spirit is shed. How can a being shed itself onto another?
The Spirit is also described as something that can be stirred up: 2
Timothy 1:6; quenched: 1 Thes.
5:19, and renewed: 2
Cor. 4:16. These attributes are
far more fitting for a power than
a person.
In
addition, there are several key facts that must be acknowledged when
discussing the Set-apart Spirit that show that the Spirit is not a
person:
•
There
is no evidence in Old or New Covenants that the Father or Son
communicate with the Set-apart Spirit. Paul never addressed the
Set-apart Spirit in the salutations of any of his letters, as he did
the Father and Son.
•
There
is no instance where anyone prayed to the Set-apart Spirit.
•
Nowhere
in the scripture is the Set-apart Spirit called the "third
person." If the Set-apart Spirit were a separate being, as are
the Father and Son, then it should at least have a personal name as
do Yahweh the Father and Yahushua the Son! Yet, it remains nameless.
•
We
know that Yahushua was conceived by the Set-apart Spirit (Matt.
1:20), therefore if the
Set-apart Spirit were a person then
Yahushua prayed to the wrong "father" in John
17 and
other places.
Alvan
Lamson, author of The
Church of the First Three
Centuries,
offers a summation as to the legitimacy of the Set-apart Spirit in
composing part of a Trinity. "…we must look, not to Jewish
Scriptures, nor to the teachings of [Yahushua] and his apostles, but
to Philo and the Alexandrine Platonists. In consistency with this
view, we maintain that the doctrine of the Trinity was of gradual and
comparatively late formation; that it had its origin in a source
entirely foreign from that of the Jewish and Christian Scriptures;
that it grew up, and was ingrafted on Christianity, through the
Platonizing Fathers…"
Before
delving into the next discussion, we must first understand the origin
of the New Covenant and why certain words were translated as they
were, leading some to infer that the Spirit is a sentient, individual
being.
WHY
PRONOUN "HE" IS USED FOR SPIRIT IN N.T.
Scholarship
typically has believed that the New Covenant was originally written
in koine or common Greek because the oldest known New Covenant
manuscripts are all written in Greek. Yet, there are many scholars
who are now refuting this idea (see Documents
of
the Primitive Church,
Dr. Charles Torrey; The
Quest of the Historical
Jesus,
Dr. Albert Schweitzer; Complete
Jewish Bible, David
Stern; Journal
of Biblical Literature,
vol. 96, Dr. George Howard).
One
reason scholars question a Greek New Covenant original is because of
the New Covenant’s grammar. Linguistic authorities admit that
the
New Covenant has poor Greek grammar but excellent Hebrew grammar.
This is even more the case for the four Evangels and the Book of
Revelation. A growing number of scholars are convinced that the
Evangels, along with Revelation, were all originally written in
Hebrew or Aramaic, a close dialect to Hebrew.
There
are also other indications that most, if not all, of the New Covenant
was originally written in Hebrew or Aramaic. Consider some key facts:
the twelve apostles whom Yahushua appointed were common men. Some
were fishermen, others tax collectors, but none were considered
scholars.
It
is documented from the well-known Hebrew historian Josephus that the
Greek language was largely foreign to the Hebrew people in and around
Galilee where Yahushua spent His life and ministered. This
first-century priest said of himself, "I have also taken a great
deal of pains to obtain the learning of the Greeks, and understand
the elements of the Greek language, although I have so long
accustomed myself to speak our own tongue, that I cannot pronounce
Greek with sufficient exactness" (Antiquities,
Book XX, Chapter XI).
Josephus
was one of the most educated Hebrews of his time, yet he was mostly
unfamiliar with the Greek language. Now if a learned man like
Josephus hardly knew the Greek language, how could the uneducated
apostles know the Greek tongue, and even know it well enough to write
fluently on many difficult subjects? These were not Greeks but
Hebrews from rural Israel, therefore they spoke their native tongue,
Hebrew or Aramaic. If they spoke Hebrew or Aramaic then they
obviously wrote their New Covenant books and letters in that language
as well.
Why
is this fact important?
The
Hebrew and Aramaic languages have no "it" or neuter gender;
therefore all nouns are either masculine or feminine. e.g.
Exodus 37:16 "And he made the
vessels which were upon the table, his
dishes, and his
spoons, and his
bowls, and his
covers to cover withal, of pure gold." (KJV)
This text describing the utensils of the table in the
Tabernacle ought to read:
Exodus 37:16 "And he made the
utensils which were on the table, its dishes, and its cups, and its
bowls, and its jars for pouring, of clean gold." (The Scriptures 1998)
If the four
evangels were originally written in Hebrew or Aramaic that would
explain why in the New Covenant the Set-apart Spirit is referred to
by the masculine "he" and "him" and not "it"
(John 14:17; 15:26; 16:13). Paul, a Hebrew, also would have written
in Hebrew to the Hebrew-speaking Jewish converts in far-flung places
like Rome and Galatia and his letters would reflect the same use of
the masculine pronoun.
TWO PROBLEMATIC
‘TRINITARIAN’ PASSAGES
There
are two New Covenant passages popularly used to support the doctrine
of the Trinity. The first is:
Matthew
28:19: "Go ye therefore,
and
teach all nations, baptizing
them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy
Spirit" (KJV).
The
Jerusalem Bible questions whether the formula given for baptism here
is inspired or liturgical (added later by the church). The Hebrew
version of Matthew omits the verse entirely. And although the passage
is found in the three earliest known Greek New Covenant manuscripts,
without any original New Covenant manuscripts in existence we have no
evidence to substantiate that the present form of Matthew
28:19
is accurate.
One
reason Biblical scholars question the originality of this passage is
that it conflicts with the other formulas given for baptism in the
New Covenant. In all other instances baptism is done into the
singular name of Yahushua (see Acts
2:38; 8:16; 10:48; 19:5; 22:16; Rom
6:3; Gal 3:27).
The
Companion Bible makes special note of this: "To some,
perplexity, and even distress, is caused by the apparent neglect of
the disciples to carry out the [Master’s] command in Matthew
28:19-20, with regard to the formula for baptism. …Turning
to
Acts
and onwards, they find no single instance of, or reference to,
baptism in which the Triune name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit
is employed. On the contrary, from the very first, only ten days
after the injunction had been given, Peter is found (Acts 2:38)
commanding all his hearers including those of the dispersion to be
baptized in the name of [Yahushua the Messiah]" (p. 206,
Appendix 185).
A
second reason why biblical scholars are skeptical of Matthew
28:19 is because of
conflicting historical documents. Eusebius
of Caesarea is known as one of the greatest Greek teachers and
historians of the early church. He lived approximately between the
years of 270 CE and 340 CE. In citing Matthew, Eusebius omitted the
Trinitarian formula found in Matthew
28:19. "The facts are, in
summary, that Eusebius quotes
Matthew 28:19-21 times, either omitting everything between
‘nations’
and ‘teaching,’ or in the form ‘make
disciples of all
nations
in my name,’ the latter form being the more frequent"
(Encyclopedia
of Religion and Ethics).
The Jewish
New
Testament Commentary
says, "Although nearly all ancient manuscripts have the
trinitarian formula, Eusebius, the Church historian, who may have
been a non-trinitarian, in his writings preceding the Council of
Nicea in 325 C.E., quotes the verse without it. Most scholars believe
the formula is original, but papers by Hans Kosmala (‘The
Conclusion of Matthew,’ Annual of the Swedish Theological
Institute, 4 (1965), (pp. 132-147) and David Flusser (‘The
Conclusion of Matthew in a New Jewish Christian Source,’
ibid., 5
(1966-7), pp. 110-119) take the opposite view" (note on Matt.
28:19, p. 86).
Obviously,
Eusebius did not recognize the current form of Matthew 28:19. Instead
of quoting the phrase, "in the name of the Father, and the Son,
and of the Holy Spirit," he most often used the phrase, "in
my name," which would agree with all other accounts of baptism
in the New Covenant.
The Encyclopedia
of Religion and Ethics,
p. 380, further reveals that Justin Martyr, another church father,
was also possibly ignorant of the present form of Matthew 28:19.
"Justin Martyr quotes a saying of Messiah as a proof of the
necessity of regeneration, but falls back upon the use of Isaiah and
apostolic tradition to justify the practice of baptism and the use of
the triune formula. This certainly suggests that Justin did not know
the traditional text of Matthew 28:19."
The
second passage in question is:
1 John 5:7
“For there are three that bear record
in heaven, the
Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are
one.”
(KJV)
Most
biblical scholars will admit that 1 John 5:7 was a later addition to
the New Covenant. In other words, this passage is not found in the
oldest Greek New Covenant manuscripts.
Note
the following on 1 John 5:7: "During the controversy of the 4th
cent. over the doctrine of the Trinity the text was expanded - first
in Spain ca. 380, and then taken in the Vulg. - by the insertion:
‘There are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the
Word,
and the Holy Spirit: and these three are one.’ A few late
Greek
manuscripts contain the addition. Hence it is passed into the KJV.
But all modern critical editions and translations of the NT,
including RSV, omit the interpolation, as it has no warrant in the
best and most ancient manuscripts or in the early church fathers"
(The
Interpreter’s One-Volume Commentary on
the
Bible,
note on 1 John 5:4-12).
The
Jerusalem Bible note on 1 John 5:7-8 says, "Vulgate vv. 7-8 read
as follows "There are three witnesses in
heaven: the
Father the Word and the Spirit, and these three are one; there are
three witnesses on earth: the
Spirit the water and the blood’. The words in italics (not in
any
of the early Greek MSS, or any of the early translations, or in the
best MSS of the Vulgate itself) are probably a gloss that has crept
into the text."
There
should be no question regarding the faulty rendering of 1 John 5:7-8.
Historically, along with modern scholarship, it is freely admitted
that this passage is a later addition to the original New Covenant
manuscripts. This passage, along with Matthew 28:19, cannot be used
to establish the doctrine of the Trinity.
CONCLUSION
From
both the inspired Word of Yahweh and Scriptural scholarship, the
error of the Trinity is exposed. It is freely admitted through
historical and present scholarship that the Trinity was not
established during the time of the Apostles, but took an additional
three hundred years to become firmly established in the church. This
occurred at a time when the church was assimilating many people of
pagan beliefs, most of whom held to a Trinity teaching in their
heathen background. Like so many beliefs practiced by mankind, the
Trinity was developed through syncretized theology, and not by the
inspired Word.
Yahweh’s
Word admonishes us to “prove
all things” (1 Thess
5:21, Acts 17:11).
It is
the responsibility of each to “work
out your own salvation”
(Phil.
2:12). It is critical that
we study our beliefs and understand whether they are inspired of
Yahweh or are man-made ideas developed through tradition.
Scriptures
quoted are taken from “The Scriptures –
1998”
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